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According to my economics textbooks, when you say "ownership of the entire market" you are talking about a pure monopoly, which is different to a monopoly. You don't need the entire market to have monopolistic power.

So, I would disagree with your definitions, and your assertion that "in economics, they use this term correctly".

I would also suggest that your assertions seem somewhat ideological. Many people agree that trusts are bad for capitalism in that they restrict competition, and are not evidence of socialism.



I love how you just made up a term and then claimed that using the word wrong is justified because you made up a different term for the correct definiton.

Of course, you've never opened an economic texbook in your life.

I also love how you claim that my references to history are ideological assertions, then you make a broad and profoundly ignorant ideological assertion as a counter argument, except that, of course, you don't make an actual argument, you just say "many people believe".

Many people believe there is a good, that's not proof that its true.

You are a fucking ignorant socialist, and it is consequently no wonder that you are so dishonest as well.

It is fucktards like you that make hacker news (and any "social" news site) not worth participating on,..... because there are just too many ignorant, low intelligence people downvoting those who bothered to learn something and who bother to think.

Just in case there's any question of our relative positions here.


I'm afraid you are too kind in attributing the definition of "pure monopoly" to me.

http://www.google.com/search?client=safari&rls=en&q=...

I'm sorry that you got downvoted. Take it easy.




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