> Why does this "agreed-upon pronunciation" take precedence over the "agreed-upon pronunciation" of English?
Excellent question. I don't know. People just assume that precedence as axiomatic (they just agree upon it), because it seems to work... well, easier with? More efficient? That's a subject for a study, I guess.
Of course by the in-group. People invent their own languages just to keep other peoples out of their culture or subculture. Since centuries. Another subject for a study. Knock yourself out, do the research and write a paper.
Excellent question. I don't know. People just assume that precedence as axiomatic (they just agree upon it), because it seems to work... well, easier with? More efficient? That's a subject for a study, I guess.
Of course by the in-group. People invent their own languages just to keep other peoples out of their culture or subculture. Since centuries. Another subject for a study. Knock yourself out, do the research and write a paper.